sunwukong at hananet.net
Tue Sep 5 03:01:01 EDT 2000
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Does a malapropism cease to be incorrect when it crosses over from one
language to another? I remember the fun when our Korean class was asked
to translate a sentance that went something like this.
In at least one American sub culture I could immagine it to be the same
as two bits minus a nickle. But I won't Ax you which one.
It has been two years, three months and 14 days since I waited for that
Some students thought that this was equivilant to a statement that that
person had been waiting for the buss in mention for two years, three
months and 14 days. It was useless to try and get the instructor to
clarify the sentance. She was trying to teach us the Korean equivilant
for "since" and was shocked when I pointed out that her example was
confusing the class. (at least me, since I couldent tell what she
intended by the sentance!)
Since then Im no longer confused.
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